Exam Questions And Quiz Test Inorganic Chemistry
These Objective Solved Questions are very useful for Quiz on Chemistry andjob recruitment exams Like PSC UPSC NDA etc
1. When a little sulphur in a spoon is heated, it burns with a blue flame which slowly disappears after some time and we can feel a pungent odour. This pungent odour is due to
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Sulphur gas
(d) Sulphuric acid
Ans. (b)
2. The formula of Baking soda is
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Sodium hydroid
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the foll6wing is a weak base?
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NH4OH
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
4. A basic salt that is used in daily life is
(a) Sodium acetate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Ammonium sulphate
(d) Sodium carbonate
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following is spread on icy roads to melt ice in cold countries?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Rock salt
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is a hydrated salt?
(a) Ca(OH) 4
(b) MgCO3
(c) MgSO.7H2O
(d) BaSO4
Ans. (c)
7. Calcium phosphate can be obtained by reacting calcium hydroxide with
(a) Phosphoric acid
(b) Nulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (a)
8. Epsom salt is
(a) CuSO4
(b) CaSO4
(c) MgSO4
(d) Na2SO4
Ans. (c)
9. What happens when hydrated copper sulphate is heated?
(a) It becomes colourless
(b) It turns into anhydrous salt
(c) It loses water of crystallization
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Only organic acids conduct electricity
(b) Only mineral acids conduct electricity
(c) All acid solutions, whether organic acids or mineral acids, conduct electricity
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following acid is also known as battery acid that is used in car batteries?
(a) H2SO4
(b) HCI
(c) HNO3
(d) H3PO4
Ans. (a)
12. What happens to the colour of litmus paper when a drop of acid falls on it?
(a) Colour fades
(b) From blue it turns red
(c) From red it turns blue
(d) Remains unchanged
Ans. (b)
13. The term ‘pH’ comes from
(a) Hydrogen purity
(b) Pure Hydrogen
(c) Hydrogen power
(d) Purity of Hydrogen
Ans. (c)
14. The pH of 1 x 10-8 M HC1 solution is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
15.While mixing H2SO4 with water which of the• following precautions should be taken?
(a) Never add acid to water
(b) Never add water to acid
(c) Add the lighter heavier liquid
(d) Avoid sunlight
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following may be regarded as weak electrolytes?
(a) NaC1
(b) CH3COONa
(c) HC1
(d) CH3COOH
Ans. (d)
17. The pH of three solutions A, B, C is 6, 4, 8 receptivity which of the following is the correct option?
(a) A>B>C decreasing acidic strength
(b) C>B>A increasing acidic strength
(c) B>A>C is decreasing acidic strength
(d) C>B>A decreasing acidic strength
Ans. (c)
18. An aqueous solution of NaCl is
(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) neutral
(d) Either acidic / basic
Ans. (c)
19. ‘Alum’ is an example of
(a) Single salt
(b) Double salt
(c) Acids
(d) None of above
Ans. (b)
20. All salts are
(a) Strong electrolytes
(b) Weak electrolytes
(c) Non electrolytes
(d) Either weak or strong
Ans. (d)
21. An aqueous solution of CH3COONa is
(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Amphitricha
(d) Either Acklic/Basic
Ans. (b)
22. A pH -2 solutions is more acidic than one with pH 6 by a factor of
(a) 4000
(b) 2
(c) 10000
(d) 8000
Ans. (c)
23. Electro refining which is based on phenomenon of Electrolysis where
(a) Impure metal is made anode and pure metal is cathode
(b) Impure metal is cathode and pure metal is anode
(c) Pure metal makes both anode and cathode
(d) None of the above
24. Which of the following is an example of strong electrolyte?
(a) NH4OH solution
(b) NaOH
(c) CH3COONa
(d) HCN
Ans. (b)
25. The loss of water of crystallization to the atmosphere by a compound is termed
(a) deliquescence
(b) dehydration
(c) efflorescence
(d) hydrolysis
Ans. (c)
Wednesday, August 24, 2011
Free online Chemistry Test for Exams containing Solved Questions
Free online Chemistry Test for Exams containing Solved Questions
Very useful for medical entrance Tests like PMT as well as Engineering Entrance Tests Like AIEEE
1. Noble gases exist as individual
(a) Atoms
(b) Molecules
(c) Ions
(d) Compounds
Ans. (a)
2. Electropositive atoms tend to form
(a) Negative ions
(b) Positive ions
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Metallic bonds
Ans. (b)
3. Electrovalent compounds are usually
(a) Solids with low melting points solids with
(b) High melting points
(c) Volatile liquids
(d) Organic compounds
4. In electrovalence
(a) Molecules lose electrons forming atoms
(b) Molecules gain electrons forming atoms
(c) Atoms share electrons
(d) Atoms lose or gain electrons forming ions
Ans. (d)
5. A double bond between two carbon atoms is formed by
(a) The transfer of two electrons from one carbon atom to the other
(b) The transfer of one electron from one carbon atom to the other
(c) Two shared electron pairs
(d) The sharing of two electrons
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is a non-polar molecule?
(a) NH3
(b) HC1
(c) CCl4
(d) H2O
Ans. (c)
7. The bonding in ammonium chloride
(a) is covalent only
(b) is electrovalent only
(c) Consists of three covalent nitrogen- hydrogen bonds and an electrovalent bond between the ammonia molecule and the chlorine atom.
(d) Consist of four covalent nitrogen-hydrogen bonds and one electrovalent bond between the ammonium ion and chloride ion.
Ans. (d)
8. Which amongst the following has smallest size?
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Na+
(d) Al3+
Ans. (d)
9. Which amongst the following can lose 2 electrons to acquire the configuration of argon?
(a) N
(b) Mg
(c) Ca
(d) Be
Ans. (c)
10. Two electronegative atoms combine to form
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Coordinate bond
(d) Can’t be predicted
Ans. (b)
11. An element with low ionization energy combines with an element having high electron affinity to form
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Dative bond
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
12. The actual formula of sodium chloride is
(a) NaC1
(b) Na+ C1-
(c) (Na+ Cl-)n
(d) NanCln
Ans. (c)
13. Which of these has a triple covalent bond?
(a) PH3
(b) CO2
(c) A1C13
(d) C2H2
Ans. (d)
14. The number of covalent bonds in ethylene is
(a) 2 double bonds, 2 single bonds
(b) 2 double and 4 single bonds
(c) 2 single and 2 double bonds
(d) 1 double and 4 single bonds
Ans. (d)
15. When an alkali metal combines with halogen, it will form
(a) Always covalent bond
(b) Always ionic bond
(c) May be covalent or ionic
(d) Will not combine at all
Ans. (b)
16. An element ‘X’ belongs to group 11 while an element ‘Y’ belongs to group 17 of the periodic table. They are expected to form
(a) An ionic compound with formula X Y
(b) An ionic compound with formula XY2
(c) A covalent compound with formula XY2
(d) A covalent compound with formula X2Y
Ans. (b)
17. Which amongst the following will not conduct electricity?
(a) NaC1
(c) CaF2
(b) MgC12
(d) C6H12O6
Ans. (d)
18. Which amongst the following has a polar covalent bond?
(a) NaC1
(b) NH3
(c) O2
(d) CaO
Ans. (b)
Very useful for medical entrance Tests like PMT as well as Engineering Entrance Tests Like AIEEE
1. Noble gases exist as individual
(a) Atoms
(b) Molecules
(c) Ions
(d) Compounds
Ans. (a)
2. Electropositive atoms tend to form
(a) Negative ions
(b) Positive ions
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Metallic bonds
Ans. (b)
3. Electrovalent compounds are usually
(a) Solids with low melting points solids with
(b) High melting points
(c) Volatile liquids
(d) Organic compounds
4. In electrovalence
(a) Molecules lose electrons forming atoms
(b) Molecules gain electrons forming atoms
(c) Atoms share electrons
(d) Atoms lose or gain electrons forming ions
Ans. (d)
5. A double bond between two carbon atoms is formed by
(a) The transfer of two electrons from one carbon atom to the other
(b) The transfer of one electron from one carbon atom to the other
(c) Two shared electron pairs
(d) The sharing of two electrons
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is a non-polar molecule?
(a) NH3
(b) HC1
(c) CCl4
(d) H2O
Ans. (c)
7. The bonding in ammonium chloride
(a) is covalent only
(b) is electrovalent only
(c) Consists of three covalent nitrogen- hydrogen bonds and an electrovalent bond between the ammonia molecule and the chlorine atom.
(d) Consist of four covalent nitrogen-hydrogen bonds and one electrovalent bond between the ammonium ion and chloride ion.
Ans. (d)
8. Which amongst the following has smallest size?
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Na+
(d) Al3+
Ans. (d)
9. Which amongst the following can lose 2 electrons to acquire the configuration of argon?
(a) N
(b) Mg
(c) Ca
(d) Be
Ans. (c)
10. Two electronegative atoms combine to form
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Coordinate bond
(d) Can’t be predicted
Ans. (b)
11. An element with low ionization energy combines with an element having high electron affinity to form
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Dative bond
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
12. The actual formula of sodium chloride is
(a) NaC1
(b) Na+ C1-
(c) (Na+ Cl-)n
(d) NanCln
Ans. (c)
13. Which of these has a triple covalent bond?
(a) PH3
(b) CO2
(c) A1C13
(d) C2H2
Ans. (d)
14. The number of covalent bonds in ethylene is
(a) 2 double bonds, 2 single bonds
(b) 2 double and 4 single bonds
(c) 2 single and 2 double bonds
(d) 1 double and 4 single bonds
Ans. (d)
15. When an alkali metal combines with halogen, it will form
(a) Always covalent bond
(b) Always ionic bond
(c) May be covalent or ionic
(d) Will not combine at all
Ans. (b)
16. An element ‘X’ belongs to group 11 while an element ‘Y’ belongs to group 17 of the periodic table. They are expected to form
(a) An ionic compound with formula X Y
(b) An ionic compound with formula XY2
(c) A covalent compound with formula XY2
(d) A covalent compound with formula X2Y
Ans. (b)
17. Which amongst the following will not conduct electricity?
(a) NaC1
(c) CaF2
(b) MgC12
(d) C6H12O6
Ans. (d)
18. Which amongst the following has a polar covalent bond?
(a) NaC1
(b) NH3
(c) O2
(d) CaO
Ans. (b)
Practice Chemistry Questions on Atoms
Practice Chemistry Questions on Atoms
Chemistry Quiz - Questions & Answers on Atoms
1. The fundamental particles not present in the nucleus of hydrogen atom is
(a) electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
2. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in M Shell of an atom are
(a) 8
(b) 32
(c) 18
(d) 25
Ans. (c)
3. The oil drop experiment by R.A. Mullikan was performed to find
(a) Charge on the neutron
(b) Charge on the electron
(c) Charge on the Proton
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. The experiment which led to the discovery of nucleus was performed by
(a) Goldstein
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Dalton
(d) Rutherford
Ans. (d)
5. The electronic configuration of the element with Atomic number 19 is
(a) 2, 8, 7
(b) 2, 9, 8
(c) 2, 8, 8, 1
(d) 2, 10, 7
Ans. (c)
6. An element has electronic configuration 2,8,4. It will be classified as
(a) Metal
(b) Non metal
(c) Metalloid
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
7. Amongst element X (2, 8, 6) and Y (2, 8, 8) which is more reactive and why?
(a) X because it is a metal
(b) Y because it is non metal
(c) Because it has 6 valence electrons
(d) Y because it is gas
Ans. (c)
8. Which of these is a pairs of isobar?
(a) 6C12, 8O16
(b) 6C13, 6C14
(c) 20Ca40, 18Ar40
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
9. The e/m value for cathode rays
(a) Varies with the nature of the gas
(b) Does not vary with the nature of gas
(c) Could not be determined by J.J. Thomson
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
Ans. (b)
10. Isotopes differ in
(a) no. of electrons
(b) no. of protons
(c) no. of neutrons
(d) Chemical reactivity
Ans. (c)
Chemistry Quiz - Questions & Answers on Atoms
1. The fundamental particles not present in the nucleus of hydrogen atom is
(a) electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
2. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in M Shell of an atom are
(a) 8
(b) 32
(c) 18
(d) 25
Ans. (c)
3. The oil drop experiment by R.A. Mullikan was performed to find
(a) Charge on the neutron
(b) Charge on the electron
(c) Charge on the Proton
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. The experiment which led to the discovery of nucleus was performed by
(a) Goldstein
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Dalton
(d) Rutherford
Ans. (d)
5. The electronic configuration of the element with Atomic number 19 is
(a) 2, 8, 7
(b) 2, 9, 8
(c) 2, 8, 8, 1
(d) 2, 10, 7
Ans. (c)
6. An element has electronic configuration 2,8,4. It will be classified as
(a) Metal
(b) Non metal
(c) Metalloid
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
7. Amongst element X (2, 8, 6) and Y (2, 8, 8) which is more reactive and why?
(a) X because it is a metal
(b) Y because it is non metal
(c) Because it has 6 valence electrons
(d) Y because it is gas
Ans. (c)
8. Which of these is a pairs of isobar?
(a) 6C12, 8O16
(b) 6C13, 6C14
(c) 20Ca40, 18Ar40
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
9. The e/m value for cathode rays
(a) Varies with the nature of the gas
(b) Does not vary with the nature of gas
(c) Could not be determined by J.J. Thomson
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
Ans. (b)
10. Isotopes differ in
(a) no. of electrons
(b) no. of protons
(c) no. of neutrons
(d) Chemical reactivity
Ans. (c)
Practice Objective Chemistry Test on Periodic Table
Practice Objective Chemistry Test on Periodic Table
Periodic Table of the Elements Quiz - Test Your Chemistry
1. An element has 12 neutrons in its nucleus. To which group of the periodic table it will belong?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) Impossible to predict
Ans. (d)
2. The element with atomic number 9 resembles in properties with the element having atomic number
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 36
(d) 27
Ans. (b)
3. Atomic number and not the atomic weight is the fundamental property of an element was enunciated by?
(a) Dalton
(b) Bohr
(c) Mosley
(d) Mendeleev
Ans. (c)
4. Elements in a period have same
(a) Number of valence electrons
(b) Valency
(c) Number of shells
(d) Volume
Ans. (c)
5. Elements belonging to the same group have similar properties because
(a) They have similar electronic configuration of the outermost shell
(b) Their atomic numbers go on increasing as we move down the group
(c) all of them the metallic elements
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
6. The atoms of elements belonging to the same group of periodic table have the same
(a) Number of protons
(b) Number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons
(d) Number of electrons in the outermost shell
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following is the correct order of relative sizes?
(a) I->I+>I
(b) I->I+>I+
(c) I>I+>I-
(d) I+>I->I
Ans. (b)
8. On moving horizontally across a period, the number of electrons in the outermost shell increases from- to-
(a) 2, 8
(b) 2, 18
(c) 1, 8
(d) 1, 18
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following hydroxides is most basic?
(a) Be(OH)2
(b) Ba(OH)2
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) Mg(OH)2
Ans. (b)
10. The element with smallest size in the 4th period is
(a) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine
(b) Iodine
(d) Bromine
Ans. (d)
11. The most metallic element in the fifth period is
(a) Silver
(b) Rubidium
(c) Gold
(d) Rhodium
Ans. (b)
12. Element ‘A’ has Electronic configuration 2,7 ‘B’ has configuration 2,8,6, ‘C’ has configuration 2,8,8 while ‘D’ has 2,8,7. Which element will show similar chemical properties?
(a) A and C
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) B and D
Ans. (b)
13. Law of Triad was proposed by
(a) Newland
(b) Gay Lussac
(c) Mendeleev
(d) Dobereiner
Ans. (d)
14. Third period of the periodic tables contains the following number elements.
(a) 2
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 32
Ans. (c)
15. The element with electronic configuration 2, 8,6is
(a) Metallic with valency 2
(b) Non-metallic with valency 2
(c) Metalloid with valency 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Periodic Table of the Elements Quiz - Test Your Chemistry
1. An element has 12 neutrons in its nucleus. To which group of the periodic table it will belong?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) Impossible to predict
Ans. (d)
2. The element with atomic number 9 resembles in properties with the element having atomic number
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 36
(d) 27
Ans. (b)
3. Atomic number and not the atomic weight is the fundamental property of an element was enunciated by?
(a) Dalton
(b) Bohr
(c) Mosley
(d) Mendeleev
Ans. (c)
4. Elements in a period have same
(a) Number of valence electrons
(b) Valency
(c) Number of shells
(d) Volume
Ans. (c)
5. Elements belonging to the same group have similar properties because
(a) They have similar electronic configuration of the outermost shell
(b) Their atomic numbers go on increasing as we move down the group
(c) all of them the metallic elements
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
6. The atoms of elements belonging to the same group of periodic table have the same
(a) Number of protons
(b) Number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons
(d) Number of electrons in the outermost shell
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following is the correct order of relative sizes?
(a) I->I+>I
(b) I->I+>I+
(c) I>I+>I-
(d) I+>I->I
Ans. (b)
8. On moving horizontally across a period, the number of electrons in the outermost shell increases from- to-
(a) 2, 8
(b) 2, 18
(c) 1, 8
(d) 1, 18
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following hydroxides is most basic?
(a) Be(OH)2
(b) Ba(OH)2
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) Mg(OH)2
Ans. (b)
10. The element with smallest size in the 4th period is
(a) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine
(b) Iodine
(d) Bromine
Ans. (d)
11. The most metallic element in the fifth period is
(a) Silver
(b) Rubidium
(c) Gold
(d) Rhodium
Ans. (b)
12. Element ‘A’ has Electronic configuration 2,7 ‘B’ has configuration 2,8,6, ‘C’ has configuration 2,8,8 while ‘D’ has 2,8,7. Which element will show similar chemical properties?
(a) A and C
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) B and D
Ans. (b)
13. Law of Triad was proposed by
(a) Newland
(b) Gay Lussac
(c) Mendeleev
(d) Dobereiner
Ans. (d)
14. Third period of the periodic tables contains the following number elements.
(a) 2
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 32
Ans. (c)
15. The element with electronic configuration 2, 8,6is
(a) Metallic with valency 2
(b) Non-metallic with valency 2
(c) Metalloid with valency 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Wednesday, August 3, 2011
Free Chemistry mcq questions test
Free Chemistry mcq questions test
Chemistry Test and Chemistry Quiz
Practice Multiple Choice Questions in chemistry
1. Identify alkenes from the following
(a) C2H2
(b) C2H6
(c) C3H6
(d) C3H4
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following salt gets hydrolyzed in aqueous solution? A salt of
(a) Weak acid and weak base
(b) Strong acid and weak base
(c) Weak acid and strong base
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following Hydrocarbon is used as a fuel?
(a) CO2
(b) C4H10
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3COOH
Ans. (b)
4. When SO2 dissolves in water the acid formed is
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Sulphurous acid
(c) Sulphonic acid
(d) Oleum
Ans. (b)
5. Neopentane and Isopentane are
(a) Allotropes
(b) Isobars
(c) Isomers
(d) Homologues
Ans. (c)
6. CO2 turns lime water milky, due to the formation of
(a) Ca(HCO3) 2
(b) CaCO3
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) CaO
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following pa are members of a Homologous series?
(a) CH3O CH3 dH3CH2 - OH
(b) CH3 - CHO; CH3 CH2CHO
(c) CH3CH2 COOH; CH3COOCH3
(d) (CH3)2 CH-OH; CH3 CH2 CH2 - OH
8. Ammonium chloride is a salt of
(a) weak acid and a weak base
(b) weak acid and a strong base
(c) strong acid and a strong base
(d) strong acid and a weak base
Ans. (d)
9. Many salts absorb water from the atmosphere. This property is called
(a) hydration
(b) dehydration
(c) liquescence
(d) efflorescence
Ans. (c)
10. Carboxylic group is present in
(a) Ethylene
(b) Methanoic acid
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Ethanol
Ans. (b)
11. The reaction of metal with acid results in the formation of
(a) only Hydrogen gas
(b) only salt
(c) both salt and hydrogen gas
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following compounds has a double bond?
(a) C14H28
(b) C15H32
(c) C12H22
(d) C16H34
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following acid does not react with metals?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Phosphoric acid
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Nitric acid
Ans. (c)
14. The no. of isomers of C6H14 is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 17
Ans. (b)
15. Two neighbors of Homologous series differ by
(a) CH
(b) CH2
(c) CH3
(d) CH4
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the fol1oing is an organic acid?
(a) Sulphurous acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Formic acid
Ans. (d)
17. Sodium hydroxide is
(a) A base
(b) An acid
(c) An alkali
(d) Both base as well as alkali
Ans. (a)
18. The second Homologue of alkyne is
(a) CH
(b) C2H2
(c) C2H4
(d) C3H4
Ans. (d)
19. The reaction of acetic acid and sodium hydroxide results in the formation of
(a) Acidic salt
(b) Basic salt
(c) Neutral salt
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following base is used as antacid to neutralize stomach acidity?
(a) Mg(OH) 2
(b) KOH
(c) Ca(OH) 2
(d) NaOH
Ans. (a)
21. The product formed when the white substance obtained by burning magnesium is dissolved in water is
(a) Magnesium oxide
(b) Magnesium carbonate
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Magnesium sulphate
Ans. (c)
22. The reaction of ammonium hydroxide and carbonic acid results in the formation of
(a) Ammonium chloride and water
(b) Ammonium carbonate and water
(c) Only ammonium carbonate
(d) Only water
Ans. (b)
23. The acidity of soil, which is due to excessive use of fertilizer aminonium sulphate, can be neutralized by adding
(a) Lime
(b) Caustic soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
24. When bitten by ant, the sting causes irritation due to the presence of
(a) A base in the sting
(b) Formic acid in the sting
(c) Poisonous chemicals
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
25. When an oxide of a non-meal reacts with water which of the following is formed?
(a) Acid
(b) Base
(c) Salt
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Chemistry Test and Chemistry Quiz
Practice Multiple Choice Questions in chemistry
1. Identify alkenes from the following
(a) C2H2
(b) C2H6
(c) C3H6
(d) C3H4
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following salt gets hydrolyzed in aqueous solution? A salt of
(a) Weak acid and weak base
(b) Strong acid and weak base
(c) Weak acid and strong base
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following Hydrocarbon is used as a fuel?
(a) CO2
(b) C4H10
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3COOH
Ans. (b)
4. When SO2 dissolves in water the acid formed is
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Sulphurous acid
(c) Sulphonic acid
(d) Oleum
Ans. (b)
5. Neopentane and Isopentane are
(a) Allotropes
(b) Isobars
(c) Isomers
(d) Homologues
Ans. (c)
6. CO2 turns lime water milky, due to the formation of
(a) Ca(HCO3) 2
(b) CaCO3
(c) Ca(OH)2
(d) CaO
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following pa are members of a Homologous series?
(a) CH3O CH3 dH3CH2 - OH
(b) CH3 - CHO; CH3 CH2CHO
(c) CH3CH2 COOH; CH3COOCH3
(d) (CH3)2 CH-OH; CH3 CH2 CH2 - OH
8. Ammonium chloride is a salt of
(a) weak acid and a weak base
(b) weak acid and a strong base
(c) strong acid and a strong base
(d) strong acid and a weak base
Ans. (d)
9. Many salts absorb water from the atmosphere. This property is called
(a) hydration
(b) dehydration
(c) liquescence
(d) efflorescence
Ans. (c)
10. Carboxylic group is present in
(a) Ethylene
(b) Methanoic acid
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Ethanol
Ans. (b)
11. The reaction of metal with acid results in the formation of
(a) only Hydrogen gas
(b) only salt
(c) both salt and hydrogen gas
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following compounds has a double bond?
(a) C14H28
(b) C15H32
(c) C12H22
(d) C16H34
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following acid does not react with metals?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Phosphoric acid
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Nitric acid
Ans. (c)
14. The no. of isomers of C6H14 is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 17
Ans. (b)
15. Two neighbors of Homologous series differ by
(a) CH
(b) CH2
(c) CH3
(d) CH4
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the fol1oing is an organic acid?
(a) Sulphurous acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Formic acid
Ans. (d)
17. Sodium hydroxide is
(a) A base
(b) An acid
(c) An alkali
(d) Both base as well as alkali
Ans. (a)
18. The second Homologue of alkyne is
(a) CH
(b) C2H2
(c) C2H4
(d) C3H4
Ans. (d)
19. The reaction of acetic acid and sodium hydroxide results in the formation of
(a) Acidic salt
(b) Basic salt
(c) Neutral salt
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following base is used as antacid to neutralize stomach acidity?
(a) Mg(OH) 2
(b) KOH
(c) Ca(OH) 2
(d) NaOH
Ans. (a)
21. The product formed when the white substance obtained by burning magnesium is dissolved in water is
(a) Magnesium oxide
(b) Magnesium carbonate
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Magnesium sulphate
Ans. (c)
22. The reaction of ammonium hydroxide and carbonic acid results in the formation of
(a) Ammonium chloride and water
(b) Ammonium carbonate and water
(c) Only ammonium carbonate
(d) Only water
Ans. (b)
23. The acidity of soil, which is due to excessive use of fertilizer aminonium sulphate, can be neutralized by adding
(a) Lime
(b) Caustic soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
24. When bitten by ant, the sting causes irritation due to the presence of
(a) A base in the sting
(b) Formic acid in the sting
(c) Poisonous chemicals
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
25. When an oxide of a non-meal reacts with water which of the following is formed?
(a) Acid
(b) Base
(c) Salt
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Saturday, July 2, 2011
Solved objective Questions on hydrocarbons and organic chemistry Sample paper
Solved objective Questions on hydrocarbons and organic chemistry Sample paper
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions.
General Organic Chemistry Questions
1. Complete combusting of Hydrocarbon produces
(a) CO + H2O
(b) CO + H2
(c) CO2 + H
(d) CO2 + H2O
Ans. (d)
2. Urea was first organic compound to be synthesized by
(a) Laminar
(b) Wohiar
(c) Beryine
(d) Haber
Ans. (b)
3. The variety of coal used as old house coal is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (d)
4. The process by which smaller molecules combine to give a molecule with a higher molecular weight is known as
(a) Condensation
(b) Polymerization
(c) Catenation
(d) Isomerisation
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following have lowest calorific value?
(a) C3H6
(b) C2H5OH
(c) C3H4
(d) H2
Ans. (b)
6. The chemical added to LPG to help detect its leakage is
(a) Isobutene
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Methyl mercaptan
(d) Ethyl mercaptan
Ans. (d)
7. Incomplete combustion of fuel produces
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) H2O
(d) H2
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following are not obtained on fractional distillation of petroleum?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Asphalt
(c) Coal gas
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
9. The lowest temperature at which a combustible substance catches fire?
(a) Critical Temperature
(b) Absolute temp
(c) Ignition temp
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
10. The calorific values of wood, bituminous coal, natural gas and charcoal vary in the order:
(a) Wood > Bituminous > Natural gas > Charcoal
(b) Wood > Bituminous coal > Charcoal> Natural gas
(c) Natural gas > Charcoal > Bituminous coal > Wood
(d) Natural gas > Bituminous coal > Wood> Charcoal
Ans. (c)
11. The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of heat and electricity is
(a) Diamond
(b) Sugar charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Wood charcoal
Ans. (c)
12. The allotrope of carbon used in nuclear reactor is
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Coke
(d) Sugar Charcoal
Ans. (a)
13. Wood charcoal is used in gas masks because it
(a) Has good smell
(b) Dissolves poisonous gases
(c) Adsorbs poisonous gases
(d) Reacts with poisonous gases
Ans. (c)
14. The first organic substance ever prepared in the laboratory from inorganic compound is
(a) Urea
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Methane
(d) Ethane
Ans. (c)
15. The first three members of a homologous series are CH4, C2H6, C3H8 the fifth member of this series will be
(a) C5H10
(b) C5H14
(c) C5H12
(d) C5H8
Ans. (c)
16. Hydrocarbons having double or triple bonds are known as
(a) Saturated hydro carbons
(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(c) Alkenes
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (b)
17. Some elements show the property of existing in two or more distinct physical form which shows different physical properties but same chemical properties. These distinct forms of an element are called
(a) Isomers
(b) Allotropes
(c) Compounds
(d) Isobars
Ans. (b)
18. Graphite is made artificially when a mixture of
(a) Sand and coke is heated electrically
(b) Silicon and iron is heated electrically
(c) Wood and iron is heated electrically
(d) Bones and iron is heated electrically
Ans. (a)
19. Methane is prepared in the Laboratory by heating a mixture of sodium acetate and
(a) Water soda
(b) Lime
(c) Lime stone
(d) Sodium carbonate
Ans. (b)
20. The property of self linkage of carbon atoms in called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Catenation
(c) Cracking
(d) Neutralization
Ans. (b)
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions.
General Organic Chemistry Questions
1. Complete combusting of Hydrocarbon produces
(a) CO + H2O
(b) CO + H2
(c) CO2 + H
(d) CO2 + H2O
Ans. (d)
2. Urea was first organic compound to be synthesized by
(a) Laminar
(b) Wohiar
(c) Beryine
(d) Haber
Ans. (b)
3. The variety of coal used as old house coal is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (d)
4. The process by which smaller molecules combine to give a molecule with a higher molecular weight is known as
(a) Condensation
(b) Polymerization
(c) Catenation
(d) Isomerisation
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following have lowest calorific value?
(a) C3H6
(b) C2H5OH
(c) C3H4
(d) H2
Ans. (b)
6. The chemical added to LPG to help detect its leakage is
(a) Isobutene
(b) Ethylamine
(c) Methyl mercaptan
(d) Ethyl mercaptan
Ans. (d)
7. Incomplete combustion of fuel produces
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) H2O
(d) H2
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following are not obtained on fractional distillation of petroleum?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Asphalt
(c) Coal gas
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
9. The lowest temperature at which a combustible substance catches fire?
(a) Critical Temperature
(b) Absolute temp
(c) Ignition temp
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
10. The calorific values of wood, bituminous coal, natural gas and charcoal vary in the order:
(a) Wood > Bituminous > Natural gas > Charcoal
(b) Wood > Bituminous coal > Charcoal> Natural gas
(c) Natural gas > Charcoal > Bituminous coal > Wood
(d) Natural gas > Bituminous coal > Wood> Charcoal
Ans. (c)
11. The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of heat and electricity is
(a) Diamond
(b) Sugar charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Wood charcoal
Ans. (c)
12. The allotrope of carbon used in nuclear reactor is
(a) Graphite
(b) Diamond
(c) Coke
(d) Sugar Charcoal
Ans. (a)
13. Wood charcoal is used in gas masks because it
(a) Has good smell
(b) Dissolves poisonous gases
(c) Adsorbs poisonous gases
(d) Reacts with poisonous gases
Ans. (c)
14. The first organic substance ever prepared in the laboratory from inorganic compound is
(a) Urea
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Methane
(d) Ethane
Ans. (c)
15. The first three members of a homologous series are CH4, C2H6, C3H8 the fifth member of this series will be
(a) C5H10
(b) C5H14
(c) C5H12
(d) C5H8
Ans. (c)
16. Hydrocarbons having double or triple bonds are known as
(a) Saturated hydro carbons
(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(c) Alkenes
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (b)
17. Some elements show the property of existing in two or more distinct physical form which shows different physical properties but same chemical properties. These distinct forms of an element are called
(a) Isomers
(b) Allotropes
(c) Compounds
(d) Isobars
Ans. (b)
18. Graphite is made artificially when a mixture of
(a) Sand and coke is heated electrically
(b) Silicon and iron is heated electrically
(c) Wood and iron is heated electrically
(d) Bones and iron is heated electrically
Ans. (a)
19. Methane is prepared in the Laboratory by heating a mixture of sodium acetate and
(a) Water soda
(b) Lime
(c) Lime stone
(d) Sodium carbonate
Ans. (b)
20. The property of self linkage of carbon atoms in called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Catenation
(c) Cracking
(d) Neutralization
Ans. (b)
Tuesday, June 21, 2011
Chemistry test for free
Chemistry test for free
Free Chemistry Online Practice Test
Free Online Chemistry Test Practice and Preparation Test
1. Most of the fuels are
(a) Carbon compounds with sulphur
(b) Nitrogen compounds with carbon
(c) Carbon compounds with hydrogen
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
2. When steam is passed over hot coke, it produces
(a) Producer gas
(b) Synthesis gas
(c) Tear gas
(d) Coal gas
Ans. (b)
3. Producer gas is a mixture of
(a) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
(b) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
(c) Carbon monoxide and w4r vapor
(d) Carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide
Ans. (a)
4. The property of an atom to form a bond with itself is known as
(a) Isomerism
(b) Catenation
(c) Allotropy
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. A hydrocarbon is
(a) a compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(b) is sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) Compound containing carbon and hydrogen only’
(d) a derivative of benzene
Ans. (c)
6. The formula of tetrachloro methane is
(a) CC1H3
(b) CCl2
(c) CHC13
(d) CCI4
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following gas is known as illuminating gas?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
(d) Propane
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following does not give a positive test with alkaline solution of potassium permanganate?
(a) GWH
(b) C6H12
(c) C10H18
(d) C10H20
Ans. (a)
9. The residue left in destructive distillation of coal is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Coke
(c) Coaltar
(d) Coal gas
Ans. (b)
10. The fraction of petroleum used as jet fuel is
(a) Petrol
(b) Kerosene
(c) Diesel
(d) Alcohol
Ans. (b)
Free Chemistry Online Practice Test
Free Online Chemistry Test Practice and Preparation Test
1. Most of the fuels are
(a) Carbon compounds with sulphur
(b) Nitrogen compounds with carbon
(c) Carbon compounds with hydrogen
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
2. When steam is passed over hot coke, it produces
(a) Producer gas
(b) Synthesis gas
(c) Tear gas
(d) Coal gas
Ans. (b)
3. Producer gas is a mixture of
(a) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
(b) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
(c) Carbon monoxide and w4r vapor
(d) Carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide
Ans. (a)
4. The property of an atom to form a bond with itself is known as
(a) Isomerism
(b) Catenation
(c) Allotropy
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. A hydrocarbon is
(a) a compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(b) is sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) Compound containing carbon and hydrogen only’
(d) a derivative of benzene
Ans. (c)
6. The formula of tetrachloro methane is
(a) CC1H3
(b) CCl2
(c) CHC13
(d) CCI4
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following gas is known as illuminating gas?
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
(d) Propane
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following does not give a positive test with alkaline solution of potassium permanganate?
(a) GWH
(b) C6H12
(c) C10H18
(d) C10H20
Ans. (a)
9. The residue left in destructive distillation of coal is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Coke
(c) Coaltar
(d) Coal gas
Ans. (b)
10. The fraction of petroleum used as jet fuel is
(a) Petrol
(b) Kerosene
(c) Diesel
(d) Alcohol
Ans. (b)
Friday, June 3, 2011
Free Online chemistry Practice test
Free Online chemistry Practice test
Free online chemistry practice test for all entrance exams
Free Online Chemistry Sample Papers Practice and Preparation Test
1. The valency of a phosphate ion is
(a) —l
(b) —2
(c) +3
(d) —3
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(a) Apple juice
(b) Soap solution
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Lime
Ans. (a)
3. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example o
(a) a combination reaction
(b) a displacement reaction
(c) a decomposition reaction
(d) a double decomposition reaction
Ans. (d)
4, Which of the following acids is present in sour milk?
(a) Glycolic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Citrus acid
(d) Tartaric acid
Ans. (b)
5. Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution because zinc is
(a) More reactive than copper
(b) Less reactive than copper
(c) More stable than copper
(d) Less stable than copper
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following is a strong acid?
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Citrus acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Lactic acid
Ans. (a)
7. Carbon dioxide reacts with carbon to form Carbon monoxide. This is an example of a
(a) Displacement reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Combination reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction
Ans. (d)
8. The sharp pain caused by the sting of an ant is due to
(a) Malic acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Lactic acid
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following reactions is not a decomposition reaction?
(a) Starch is converted to glucose in our body
(b) Proteins are digested to amino aids
(c) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in ai
(d) Electricity is passed through water
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following acids is used in car batteries?
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Carbonic acid
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Metals like Cu, Ag, Au cannot displace H from acids
(b) In reactivity series metals are arranged in order of increasing reactivity
(c) Silver cannot displace Cu form Cu(NO3) 2
(d) Zinc displaces Cu from CuSO4
Ans. (b)
12. Milk of magnesia is an
(a) Acid
(b) Ant acid
(c) Alkali
(d) Rock salt
Ans. (b)
13. Which type of salts are stored in air tight containers
(a) Anhydrous
(b) Hydrated
(c) Dehydrated
(d) Deliquescence
Ans. (d)
14. The substance that looses electrons is called as
(a) Oxidizing agent .
(b) Reducing agent
(c) Catalyst
(d) None of above
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Oxidation involves gain of electron
(b) Substance which is reduced is reducing agent
(c) Exothermic process involves absorption of heat
(d) Oxidation involves loss of electrons
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following reaction is not endothermic in nature?
(a) Breaking of bonds
(b) Digestion of food
(c) Combustion of Carbon
(d) Evaporation of water
Ans. (c)
17. Basicity of acetic acid is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans. (c)
18. Which of following is fast reaction?
(a) Reaction between H2 and O2 to form H2O
(b) Reaction between acid and base to form salt and water
(c) Hydrolysis of ester
(d) Hydrolysis of sugar to glucose
Ans. (b)
19. When marble chips are treated with HCI , which of the following gas is liberated?
(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) CO
(d) NO2
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following is not a property of acids?
(a) All acids have a sour taste
(b) Acids turn blue litmus red
(c) Acids turn red litmus blue
(d) All acids form H ions in water
Ans. (c)
Free online chemistry practice test for all entrance exams
Free Online Chemistry Sample Papers Practice and Preparation Test
1. The valency of a phosphate ion is
(a) —l
(b) —2
(c) +3
(d) —3
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(a) Apple juice
(b) Soap solution
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Lime
Ans. (a)
3. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example o
(a) a combination reaction
(b) a displacement reaction
(c) a decomposition reaction
(d) a double decomposition reaction
Ans. (d)
4, Which of the following acids is present in sour milk?
(a) Glycolic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Citrus acid
(d) Tartaric acid
Ans. (b)
5. Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution because zinc is
(a) More reactive than copper
(b) Less reactive than copper
(c) More stable than copper
(d) Less stable than copper
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following is a strong acid?
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Citrus acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Lactic acid
Ans. (a)
7. Carbon dioxide reacts with carbon to form Carbon monoxide. This is an example of a
(a) Displacement reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Combination reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction
Ans. (d)
8. The sharp pain caused by the sting of an ant is due to
(a) Malic acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Lactic acid
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following reactions is not a decomposition reaction?
(a) Starch is converted to glucose in our body
(b) Proteins are digested to amino aids
(c) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in ai
(d) Electricity is passed through water
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following acids is used in car batteries?
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Carbonic acid
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Metals like Cu, Ag, Au cannot displace H from acids
(b) In reactivity series metals are arranged in order of increasing reactivity
(c) Silver cannot displace Cu form Cu(NO3) 2
(d) Zinc displaces Cu from CuSO4
Ans. (b)
12. Milk of magnesia is an
(a) Acid
(b) Ant acid
(c) Alkali
(d) Rock salt
Ans. (b)
13. Which type of salts are stored in air tight containers
(a) Anhydrous
(b) Hydrated
(c) Dehydrated
(d) Deliquescence
Ans. (d)
14. The substance that looses electrons is called as
(a) Oxidizing agent .
(b) Reducing agent
(c) Catalyst
(d) None of above
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Oxidation involves gain of electron
(b) Substance which is reduced is reducing agent
(c) Exothermic process involves absorption of heat
(d) Oxidation involves loss of electrons
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following reaction is not endothermic in nature?
(a) Breaking of bonds
(b) Digestion of food
(c) Combustion of Carbon
(d) Evaporation of water
Ans. (c)
17. Basicity of acetic acid is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans. (c)
18. Which of following is fast reaction?
(a) Reaction between H2 and O2 to form H2O
(b) Reaction between acid and base to form salt and water
(c) Hydrolysis of ester
(d) Hydrolysis of sugar to glucose
Ans. (b)
19. When marble chips are treated with HCI , which of the following gas is liberated?
(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) CO
(d) NO2
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following is not a property of acids?
(a) All acids have a sour taste
(b) Acids turn blue litmus red
(c) Acids turn red litmus blue
(d) All acids form H ions in water
Ans. (c)
Free chemistry Objective Questions With Answers
Free chemistry Objective Questions With Answers
10+2 chemistry solved objective MCQ Questions
Free Chemistry Online Practice Test
1. Hydrogen has high ionisation energy than alkali metals because it has:
(a) ionic bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) large size
(d) small size
Ans. (d)
2. The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous NaC1 solution that could be used in the blood stream?
(a) 0.16 mol/L
(b) 0.31 mol/L
(c) 0.60 mol/L
(d) 0.45 mol/L
Ans. (b)
3. Among the following the dissociation constant is highest for:
(a) C6H5OH
(b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) CH3C = CH
(d) CH3NH+3Cl-
Ans. (d)
4. The pH of a solution is zero. The solution is:
(a) M/2HCl
(b) M/2H2SO4
(c) M/10H2SO4
(d) M/10HCI
Ans. (b)
5. In the reaction of p-chloro toluene with KNH2 in liq.NH3, the major product is
(a) p-chloro aniline
(b) p-toluidine
(c) o-toluidine
(d) m-toluidine
Ans. (d)
6. The hydration energy of Mg2+ is larger than that of:
(a) Na+
(b) Mg3+
(c) Al3+
(d) Be2+
Ans. (a)
7. If the enthalpy of vaporization of water is 186.5 kJ mol-1, the enthalpy of its vaporization will be:
(a) 2.0 JK-1 mol-1
(b) 1.5 JK-1mol-1
(c) 1.0 JK-1 mol-1
(d) 0.5 JK-1 mol-1
Ans. (d)
8. Which of the following ion is not stable?
(a) (CH3)3C+
(b) CH3CH
(c) (CH3)2CH+
(d) C6H5CH
Ans. (a)
9. In the crystal of which of the following compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions:
(a) LiI
(b) CsF
(c) CsI
(d) LiF
Ans. (b)
10. If a is the initial concentration of a substance which reacts according to zero order kinetics and k is rate constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is:
(a) k/a
(b) a/k
(c) 2k/a
(d) 2/ka
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following configuration represents atoms of elements having the highest second ionisation energy?
(a) 1s22s22p63s2
(b) 1s22s22p63s-1
(C) 1s22s22p6
(d) 1s22s22p4
Ans. (b)
12. The reduction electrode potential, E of 0.1 m solution of M+ ions [E°RP = -2.36V] is:
(a) + 2.41
(b) - 2.41
(c) + 4.82
(d) -4.82
Ans. (b)
13. In some region of space around nucleus, 2 = 0, this region is called:
(a) orbital
(b) orbit
(c) nucleus
(d) spherical node
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following is a paramagnetic complex ion?
(a) [Ni (CN)4]2-
(b) [NiCl4]2-
(c) [Co(NH3 )6]3+
(d) Fe(CN)6]4-
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following has highest entropy?
(a) Mercury
(b) Water
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Glycerin
Ans. (c)
16. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of a salt is found to be 2.5 x 106 ohms. The equivalent conductance of solution is:
(cell constant = 1.15 cm-1)
(a) 3.8
(b) 4.6
(c) 6.4
(d) 7.6
Ans. (b)
17. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2 O2 solution is:
(a) 4.8
(b) 6.8
(c) 8.4
(d) 8.8
Ans. (c)
18. Grignard reagent on treatment with acetone produces
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) acetic acid
(c) secondary alcohol
(d) tertiary alcohol
Ans. (d)
19. In the long form of periodic table all the non metals are placed in
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Ans. (b)
20. The largest number of molecule is in:
(a) 28 g of CO2
(b) 54 g of N2O5
(c) 34 g of H2O
(d) 46 g of CH3OH
Ans. (c)
21. Which statement is correct?
(a) All halogens forms oxyacids
(b) Only iodine forms oxyacids
(c) Only chlorine and bromine forms oxyacids
(d) All halogens except fluorine forms oxyacids
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following gases will have highest rate of diffusion?
(a) CO2
(b) NH3
(c) O2
(d) N2
Ans. (b)
23. Zeeman effect explains splitting of lines in:
(a) magnetic field
(b) electric field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
24. Tautomerism is exhibited by:
(a) (CH3)2NH
(b) (CH3)3CNO
(c) RCH2NO2
(d) R3CNO2
Ans. (c)
25. Philosopher’s wool is:
(a) ZnCl2
(b) ZnS
(c) Zn (NO3)2
(d) Zn0
Ans. (d)
26. Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as:
(a) inversion
(b) saponification
(c) hydration
(d) estérification
Ans. (a)
27. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Phenol is more acidic than carbonic acid
(b) Phenol is less acidic than ethyl alcohol
(c) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
(d) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid
Ans. (c)
28. Which statement is correct for hydrogen?
(a) It has a very high IP
(b) It is always col1ected at cathode
(c) It can form bonds in + 1 as well as -1 oxidation state
(d) It has same electro negativity as halogens
Ans. (c)
29. The osmotic pressure at 17°C of an aqueous solution containing 1.75 g of sucrose per
150 mL solution is:
(a) 0.08 atm
(b) 8.1 atm
(c) 0.8 atm
(d) 9.1 atm
Ans. (c)
30. Distribution law cannot be applicable for a system in which 12 distributed in between:
(a) water and alcohol
(b) water and benzene
(c) water and chloroform
(d) water and acetone
Ans. (c)
31. Mullikan’s oil drop method is used to determine:
(a) velocity of electron
(b) mass of electron
(c) charge of electron
(d) elm ratio of electron
Ans. (c)
21. The common donor atom in ligands:
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) arsenic
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
33. Steam distillation is used for the purification of:
(a) covalent compounds
(b) electrovalent compounds
(c) co-ordinate compounds
(d) volatile compounds
Ans. (d)
34. In which of the following co-ordination compounds, the central metal obeys the EAN rule?
(a) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(b) K4[Fe(CN)3]
(c) [Cu(NH4)2]SO4
(d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
Ans. (d)
35. Optical glass contains a high percentage of:
(a) Al2O3
(b) CeO2
(c) PbO
(d) B2O3
Ans. (b)
36. Which of the following is an unsaturated acid?
(a) Stearic
(b) Oleic
(c) Lauric
(d) Myristric
Ans. (b)
37. An example of associated colloid is:
(a) vegetable oil
(b) milk
(c) rubber latex
(d) soap solution
Ans. (d)
38. Which of the following is linear polymer?
(a) Glycogen
(b) Amylopectin
(c) Amylose
(d) Starch
Ans. (c)
39. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is:
(a) ethanoic acid
(b) methanoic acid
(c) propanoic acid
(d) butanoic acid
Ans. (b)
40. Which one of the following can be classified as Bronsted base?
(a) NO3-
(b) H3O
(c) CH3COOH
(d) NH4+
Ans. (a)
41. The mass of 112 cc of CH4 at STP is:
(a) 0.16g
(b) 0.8g
(c) 0.08 g
(d) 1.6 g
Ans. (c)
42. Which among the following species has the highest ionisation potential?
(a) B
(b) Li
(c) Ne
(d) F
Ans. (c)
43. The unit of quantity of electricity is:
(a) ohm
(b) ampere
(c) coulomb
(d) volt
Ans. (c)
44. When 8.3 g copper sulphate reacts with excess of potassium iodide then the amount of iodine liberated is
(a) 42.3 g
(b) 24.3 g
(c) 4.23 g
(d) 2.43 g
Ans. (c)
45. One gram equimolecular mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 is reacted with 0.1 N HCI. The mL of 0.1 N HC1 required to react completely with the above mixture is
(a) 15.78 mL
(b) 157.8 mL
(c) 198.4 mL
(d) 295.5 mL
Ans. (b)
10+2 chemistry solved objective MCQ Questions
Free Chemistry Online Practice Test
1. Hydrogen has high ionisation energy than alkali metals because it has:
(a) ionic bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) large size
(d) small size
Ans. (d)
2. The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous NaC1 solution that could be used in the blood stream?
(a) 0.16 mol/L
(b) 0.31 mol/L
(c) 0.60 mol/L
(d) 0.45 mol/L
Ans. (b)
3. Among the following the dissociation constant is highest for:
(a) C6H5OH
(b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) CH3C = CH
(d) CH3NH+3Cl-
Ans. (d)
4. The pH of a solution is zero. The solution is:
(a) M/2HCl
(b) M/2H2SO4
(c) M/10H2SO4
(d) M/10HCI
Ans. (b)
5. In the reaction of p-chloro toluene with KNH2 in liq.NH3, the major product is
(a) p-chloro aniline
(b) p-toluidine
(c) o-toluidine
(d) m-toluidine
Ans. (d)
6. The hydration energy of Mg2+ is larger than that of:
(a) Na+
(b) Mg3+
(c) Al3+
(d) Be2+
Ans. (a)
7. If the enthalpy of vaporization of water is 186.5 kJ mol-1, the enthalpy of its vaporization will be:
(a) 2.0 JK-1 mol-1
(b) 1.5 JK-1mol-1
(c) 1.0 JK-1 mol-1
(d) 0.5 JK-1 mol-1
Ans. (d)
8. Which of the following ion is not stable?
(a) (CH3)3C+
(b) CH3CH
(c) (CH3)2CH+
(d) C6H5CH
Ans. (a)
9. In the crystal of which of the following compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions:
(a) LiI
(b) CsF
(c) CsI
(d) LiF
Ans. (b)
10. If a is the initial concentration of a substance which reacts according to zero order kinetics and k is rate constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is:
(a) k/a
(b) a/k
(c) 2k/a
(d) 2/ka
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following configuration represents atoms of elements having the highest second ionisation energy?
(a) 1s22s22p63s2
(b) 1s22s22p63s-1
(C) 1s22s22p6
(d) 1s22s22p4
Ans. (b)
12. The reduction electrode potential, E of 0.1 m solution of M+ ions [E°RP = -2.36V] is:
(a) + 2.41
(b) - 2.41
(c) + 4.82
(d) -4.82
Ans. (b)
13. In some region of space around nucleus, 2 = 0, this region is called:
(a) orbital
(b) orbit
(c) nucleus
(d) spherical node
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following is a paramagnetic complex ion?
(a) [Ni (CN)4]2-
(b) [NiCl4]2-
(c) [Co(NH3 )6]3+
(d) Fe(CN)6]4-
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following has highest entropy?
(a) Mercury
(b) Water
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Glycerin
Ans. (c)
16. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of a salt is found to be 2.5 x 106 ohms. The equivalent conductance of solution is:
(cell constant = 1.15 cm-1)
(a) 3.8
(b) 4.6
(c) 6.4
(d) 7.6
Ans. (b)
17. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2 O2 solution is:
(a) 4.8
(b) 6.8
(c) 8.4
(d) 8.8
Ans. (c)
18. Grignard reagent on treatment with acetone produces
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) acetic acid
(c) secondary alcohol
(d) tertiary alcohol
Ans. (d)
19. In the long form of periodic table all the non metals are placed in
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Ans. (b)
20. The largest number of molecule is in:
(a) 28 g of CO2
(b) 54 g of N2O5
(c) 34 g of H2O
(d) 46 g of CH3OH
Ans. (c)
21. Which statement is correct?
(a) All halogens forms oxyacids
(b) Only iodine forms oxyacids
(c) Only chlorine and bromine forms oxyacids
(d) All halogens except fluorine forms oxyacids
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following gases will have highest rate of diffusion?
(a) CO2
(b) NH3
(c) O2
(d) N2
Ans. (b)
23. Zeeman effect explains splitting of lines in:
(a) magnetic field
(b) electric field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
24. Tautomerism is exhibited by:
(a) (CH3)2NH
(b) (CH3)3CNO
(c) RCH2NO2
(d) R3CNO2
Ans. (c)
25. Philosopher’s wool is:
(a) ZnCl2
(b) ZnS
(c) Zn (NO3)2
(d) Zn0
Ans. (d)
26. Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as:
(a) inversion
(b) saponification
(c) hydration
(d) estérification
Ans. (a)
27. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Phenol is more acidic than carbonic acid
(b) Phenol is less acidic than ethyl alcohol
(c) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol
(d) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid
Ans. (c)
28. Which statement is correct for hydrogen?
(a) It has a very high IP
(b) It is always col1ected at cathode
(c) It can form bonds in + 1 as well as -1 oxidation state
(d) It has same electro negativity as halogens
Ans. (c)
29. The osmotic pressure at 17°C of an aqueous solution containing 1.75 g of sucrose per
150 mL solution is:
(a) 0.08 atm
(b) 8.1 atm
(c) 0.8 atm
(d) 9.1 atm
Ans. (c)
30. Distribution law cannot be applicable for a system in which 12 distributed in between:
(a) water and alcohol
(b) water and benzene
(c) water and chloroform
(d) water and acetone
Ans. (c)
31. Mullikan’s oil drop method is used to determine:
(a) velocity of electron
(b) mass of electron
(c) charge of electron
(d) elm ratio of electron
Ans. (c)
21. The common donor atom in ligands:
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) arsenic
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
33. Steam distillation is used for the purification of:
(a) covalent compounds
(b) electrovalent compounds
(c) co-ordinate compounds
(d) volatile compounds
Ans. (d)
34. In which of the following co-ordination compounds, the central metal obeys the EAN rule?
(a) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(b) K4[Fe(CN)3]
(c) [Cu(NH4)2]SO4
(d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
Ans. (d)
35. Optical glass contains a high percentage of:
(a) Al2O3
(b) CeO2
(c) PbO
(d) B2O3
Ans. (b)
36. Which of the following is an unsaturated acid?
(a) Stearic
(b) Oleic
(c) Lauric
(d) Myristric
Ans. (b)
37. An example of associated colloid is:
(a) vegetable oil
(b) milk
(c) rubber latex
(d) soap solution
Ans. (d)
38. Which of the following is linear polymer?
(a) Glycogen
(b) Amylopectin
(c) Amylose
(d) Starch
Ans. (c)
39. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is:
(a) ethanoic acid
(b) methanoic acid
(c) propanoic acid
(d) butanoic acid
Ans. (b)
40. Which one of the following can be classified as Bronsted base?
(a) NO3-
(b) H3O
(c) CH3COOH
(d) NH4+
Ans. (a)
41. The mass of 112 cc of CH4 at STP is:
(a) 0.16g
(b) 0.8g
(c) 0.08 g
(d) 1.6 g
Ans. (c)
42. Which among the following species has the highest ionisation potential?
(a) B
(b) Li
(c) Ne
(d) F
Ans. (c)
43. The unit of quantity of electricity is:
(a) ohm
(b) ampere
(c) coulomb
(d) volt
Ans. (c)
44. When 8.3 g copper sulphate reacts with excess of potassium iodide then the amount of iodine liberated is
(a) 42.3 g
(b) 24.3 g
(c) 4.23 g
(d) 2.43 g
Ans. (c)
45. One gram equimolecular mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 is reacted with 0.1 N HCI. The mL of 0.1 N HC1 required to react completely with the above mixture is
(a) 15.78 mL
(b) 157.8 mL
(c) 198.4 mL
(d) 295.5 mL
Ans. (b)
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